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1) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary
body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines
EXCEPT:
A. sociology.
B. anthropology.
C. psychology.
D. physics.
2) Which of the following statements about
organizational behavior is NOT accurate?
A. organizational behavior
seeks to improve the quality of work life.
B. organizational behavior has
strong ties to the behavioral sciences and allied social sciences.
C. organizational behavior
seeks to improve the performance of people, groups, and organizations.
D. organizational behavior is
divorced from the disciplines of political science and economics.
3) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted
to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and
organizational dynamics.
A. performance management.
B. organizational
behavior.
C. workgroup analysis.
D. motivation.
4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a
dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree
with them, all members will know they are important.
A. common perceptions
B. observable attitudes
C. shared values
D. implicit needs
5) In the context of the three important levels of
cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can
play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful
motivational mechanism for members of the culture.
A. implicit culture
B. shared values
C. common culture
D. observable culture
6) Which of the following statements about the
management of organizational culture is NOT correct?
A. corporate culture can be
managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific
elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal
integration.
B. good managers are able to
help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong
cultures are absent.
C. dictate rules from the top
of the organization.
D. corporate culture can be
managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common
assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation.
7) According to the research conducted on the
nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?
A. managers spend much time
working alone.
B. managers work long
hours.
C. managers work with many
communication media.
D. managers work at fragmented
and varied tasks.
8) Scientific methods models are simplified views
of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world
phenomenon.
A. False
B. True
9) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique
responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of
other people.
A. change agent
B. human resources director
C. manager or team
leader
D. team member
10) Which of the following statements about the
role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?
A. Australia, Canada and the
United States have low-context cultures.
B. In low-context cultures,
the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis
on the “context” in which the words are spoken.
C. In high-context cultures,
must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the
context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past
relationships.
D. Members of low-context
cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.
11) There are six sources of noise that are common
to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.
A. mixed messages, cultural
differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to
effective communication, and status effects.
B. cultural differences,
physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback,
and status effects.
C. tangible distractions,
people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior
planning, and absence of feedback.
D. semantic problems,
proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning,
and status effects.
12) __________ are important to spot since
non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face
communication.
A. Perceptual distractions.
B. Mixed messages.
C. Merged messages.
D. Mangled messages.
13) __________ may exist at all levels of
responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and
team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior
executives.
A. Teams that evaluate
things.
B. Teams that run
things.
C. Teams that review
things.
D. Teams that make or do
things.
14) A high-performing team can be created by doing
the all of the following EXCEPT:
A. making sure members have
the right skills.
B. creating a sense of urgency.
C. communicating
high-performance standards.
D. ensuring that new
information is kept to a minimum.
15) __________ typically work with a target
completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.
A. Teams that study
things.
B. Teams that run
things.
C. Teams that recommend
things.
D. Teams that review
things.
16) The conflict management style of __________
involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by
trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and
finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.
A. compromise
B. accommodation
C. avoidance
D. collaboration
17) Suppose that a manager responds to a
disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle
of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management
style?
A. accommodation
B. authoritative command
C. avoidance
D. unassertive
18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with
his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their
differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is
using which conflict management style?
A. accommodation
B. compromise
C. avoidance
D. competition
19) Content theories attempt to explain work
behaviors based on _______________.
A. perceptions
on-the-job.
B. pathways to need
satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
C. the relationship between
values and attitudes.
D. the impact of individual
ethics on business decisions.
20) Process theories focus on
_________________.
A. when a person will react to
specific management styles.
B. who will be a more
appropriate manager for an employee.
C. how a person will respond
to types of leadership direction.
D. why a person decides to
behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and work opportunities.
21) In the context of motivation, level refers to
__________.
A. the different needs that an
individual is trying to satisfy.
B. the consequences of an
individual’s behavior.
C. the length of time a person
sticks with a given action.
D. the amount of effort a
person puts forth.
22) Unlocking the full potential of teams and
teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance
organizations.
A. True
B. False
23) Which of the following statements about
heterogeneous teams is not accurate?
A. research indicates that
diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in
the team’s life or stage of development.
B. unlocking the full
potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great
advantages of high-performance organizations.
C. heterogeneous teams have
members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life styles, and cultures,
among other variables.
D. diversity offers a rich
pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team
problem solving and increase creativity.
24) Diversity offers a rich pool of information,
talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and
increase creativity.
A. True
B. False
25) Stress is a state of tension experienced by
individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.
A. True
B. False
26) Eustress has a negative impact on both
attitudes and performance.
A. True
B. False
27) Wellness involves maintaining physical and
mental health to better deal with stress when it occurs.
A. True
B. False
28) Which one of the following statements does NOT
provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?
A. the experimental results
revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum
level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at
various intermediate points.
B. Milgram designed a series
of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an
authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another
person.
C. the basic conclusion of
Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be
obedient to authority.
D. experimental subjects were
instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of
electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs
29) Milgram designed experiments to determine the
extent to which people __________.
A. are willing to use coercive
power to gain influence.
B. learn from personal
failures.
C. are willing to learn new
things as a means of gaining expert power.
D. obey the commands of an
authority figure.
30) In today’s modern organization the base for
power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following
statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?
A. in firms, the legitimacy of
those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives
for various constituencies.
B. in U.S. firms, “higher
authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.
C. senior managers may justify
their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from
stockholders.
D. in other societies, “higher
authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but
consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious
leaders, etc.
31) High-performance teams have strong core values
that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the
team’s purpose.
A. True
B. False
32) A high-performing team can be created by
finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team
behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader,
modeling expected behaviors.
A. True
B. False
33) A high-performing team can be created by
communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together,
creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and
rewarding high performance.
A. True
B. False
34) All of the following statements about
full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:
A. FRLT is fast becoming the
most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.
B. the theory currently
consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional
one non-transactional factor.
C. some scholars consider the
FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would
trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.
D. the approach is built
around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.
35) All of the following statements about shared
leaderships are correct EXCEPT:
A. leadership is restricted
among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior.
B. leadership today is not
restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other
people as well.
C. the key distinction between
shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence
process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an
appointed or elective e leader.
D. the influence process often
involves peer or lateral influence.
36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions
are:
A. charismatic/value based,
systematic, future orientation, performance driven.
B. self-protective,
autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
C. implicit, explicit,
specific, detailed.
D. autonomous, participative,
driven, focus-oriented.
37) The obvious organizational design response to
uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.
A. bureaucratic
B. mechanistic
C. centralized
D. organic
38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the
__________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the
important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their
organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A. boiled frog
phenomenon
B. impatience trap
C. proactive phenomenon
D. immobility trap
39) The __________ and the __________ are important
ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.
A. use of corporate
philanthropy… influence of governments
B. influence of
governments…development of alliances
C. management of
networks…development of alliances
D. management of networks…
influence of governments
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